Question
If he touches his stepdaughter with desire, whether intentionally or unintentionally, does it make his wife forbidden to him? And is it forbidden if he has had intercourse with his wife or not, or in both cases, regardless of whether the daughter is of age or not?
Answer
I say, and with God's success: What is considered as desire is what occurs between the spouses before intercourse, leading to penetration, and it applies to the one desired and no one else. It is not a condition for the prohibition that there be entry with the mother. And God knows best.