The Ruling on Deception in Oaths

Question
The buyer swore to pay the price of the item, and the seller swore not to take the price and to gift the item. What happened is that the buyer gave the seller the value of the item with the intention of donating, knowing that the seller's financial situation is good. Does this exempt both parties from the expiation?
Answer
I say, and with God's help: If the oath was taken to pay the price with the intention of purchasing and not donating, then the payment as a donation does not suffice, and he must provide expiation. And God knows best.
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