The Occurrence of Explicit Divorce in Religious Context

Question
If a man divorces his wife with an explicit word that does not require intention, the question is: Is this only a legal matter? Or is it also a religious matter that does not require intention? In other words, if he did not intend with his explicit words, does the divorce occur religiously or not?
Answer
I say, and with God's help: Explicit divorce occurs even if the man does not intend it; because it does not require intention, and God knows best.
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