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19 / 06 / 2026
The Obligation of Expiation for Intercourse on the Man and Woman
I read about the expiation for intercourse during Ramadan that it is obligatory on the man and not on the woman; because as soon as part of the glans of the man enters, her fast is invalidated. Is this correct, and what does the reasoning mean? The statement "as soon as part of the glans of the man enters, her fast is invalidated"?
Answer
I say, and with God's help: This is an example of a woman who is asleep, insane, or coerced; as soon as the glans enters, her fast is invalidated and she only has to make up for it. As for the man, he must make up for it and pay the expiation. However, if they intentionally engage in intercourse, both must make up for it and pay the expiation. And God knows best.
