Divorce in Writing

Question
If a husband divorces his wife via WhatsApp in writing, for example: he wrote to her: 'You are divorced', in this case, do we consider his intention, meaning if he intended the divorce it would be a final one, and if he did not intend it, it would not take effect, or does it immediately count as a revocable divorce?
Answer
I say, and with God's help: A clear divorce occurs: "You are divorced" via WhatsApp and other means of communication without intention. If a clear term is used, it is revocable; if something indicating final separation is used, it is irrevocable. This is from a theoretical perspective, and the one who pronounces the divorce should consult a mufti to confirm its validity. And God knows best.
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