The Ruling on Currency Exchange

Question
What is the ruling on converting an amount to another country at a currency exchange shop, where the exchange and the remittance occur in one contract; because the person receiving the money does not receive it except in the currency of their country? If we want to distinguish between the two contracts by exchanging the currency first with possession and then afterwards the remittance, but sometimes we find that the shop does not have the currency of the country to which we want to transfer, what is the solution?
Answer
I say, and with God's success: This transaction is permissible; because companies like Western Union have prepared a global software that provides remittance services. When you give them an amount of money for conversion, they charge you a fee for this service they provide. This service involves converting the money you pay them into a deposit for you, either in the same currency or in another currency. You can then collect it or have someone else collect it in another country after you have deposited the money with them. What they take from you is a fee for using their extensive software that converts cash to and from, and then the number to money within a system. Therefore, we give it the ruling of a lease. Regarding the exchange, it falls under the arrangement in that this number you have with them after paying the money becomes your right. You can exchange it for any currency in the form of a number, and it is considered in your possession, not in theirs. Thus, the condition of possession for you in the exchange is fulfilled, and we consider such possession to be legal. This is similar to banking transactions, and God knows best.
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